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View Full Version : Infraction/warning question Mk 2



Killer Angel
2012-03-22, 07:13 AM
Just asking for a further clarification...


Once you receive a Warning about something, all future violations in of that section of the rules (say, Inappropriate Topics, to use your example, or Circumventing the Board Filter or Thread Necromancy) will default to being Infractions. Violations in that category will always be Infractions after the first Warning, regardless of expiry of any prior Warnings or Infractions. You get one Warning per section of the rules.

If the default is "infractions (per section of the rules) will be issued after the first warning, regardless of expiry of any prior warning", then why do we have an expiration date for warnings? If I'm understanding right, once a warning has been delivered, it doesn't really expires, it's always "on".

Rawhide
2012-03-22, 07:18 AM
Just asking for a further clarification...



If the default is "infractions (per section of the rules) will be issued after the first warning, regardless of expiry of any prior warning", then why do we have an expiration date for warnings? If I'm understanding right, once a warning has been delivered, it doesn't really expires, it's always "on".

A) We have an expiry time for infractions, warnings will always share the same expiry time as the related infraction.

B) Warnings are not always "on". Warnings will expire just like infractions and serve a purpose not related to the default action. But, regardless of a warning's expiry, it will still count as having informed that person of the rules with regard to the default action of issuing a warning or infraction in future violations.