Quote Originally Posted by Segev View Post
So, if the girl sleeps with the bard who cast charm person on her, she would have slept with a friendly acquaintance with a silver tongue. She is not powerless to say "no." In fact, aside from using the spell to get her to give him the time of day, he'd have a roughly 15% lower chance to convince her to sleep with him without it.
But she wouldn't have slept with the THIS bard, on THIS night, without the intervention of the spell. If THIS bard didn't think she would say no to him on THIS night, why is he casting the spell? She is not willingly having sex with THIS bard on THIS night because he has overridden her will and clouded her mind. If a barbarian came in, held her down, and raped her, it would be absolutely no defense to say that she regularly has sex with with total strangers.

She's not even "more drunk" than usual, let alone roofied. If she wouldn't sleep with a friendly acquaintance - which, I remind you, one can become over the course of a simple conversation if one hits it off well enough - then she wouldn't sleep with the bard, no matter that he used charm person on her.
I think most people would have to be really drunk before they can't distinguish between friendly acquaintances and total strangers, or even enemies.

And yes, one can become a friendly acquaintance over the course of a single conversation. But unlike with a Charm Person spell, one is not forced to become a friendly acquaintance. Virtually all of your arguments are predicated on ignoring this difference.

You also ignore that the Charm Person spell does make her more likely to sleep with the spell caster than she would with an ordinary friendly acquaintance.

Two simple questions.
1. What gives the caster the right to cast any spell on an unwilling target?
2. What gives the caster the right to determine that the target should view the caster as a friendly acquaintance for an hour?