Quote Originally Posted by Zevox View Post
Sure, but that's all logical. Practical, as BRC said. Not oppression at all, or even really a problem.

Zevox
That depends on your values of oppression. If you choose to define it so strictly that one needs valid violations of Godwin's Law for example then no. However like most words in the realm of politics there are many degrees especially if one talks about say "social oppression" for example.

And arguing over whether or not its oppression would be missing the point since it merely makes the Equalists guilty of hyperbole. And arguing for a purely semantic victory in a debate is just the sort of dirty trick you bending ponies would use to distract people from the rampant inequality benders force upon others.