Mathematics and precedence rules

[GnomeFighter]

Yup. And anyone using the term 'dark ages' is instantly suspected to have little clue of the Middle Ages.

Well, I'd say that ambiguity is still better than just being plain wrong like about who discovered America or the Middle Ages being dark

Um... The Dark Ages are not The Middle Ages... Dark Ages is still a perfectly valid name for the Early Middle ages. Normally from the Fall of Rome to around 1050. It's really a much more defined period than the Middle ages.

Basing a nation's age on a constitution however can be a bit awkward in any event, e.g. one could use it to make the argument that France has only existed since 1958. Things get very wonky in the cases of nations that don't have a written constitution, such as the UK*.

Poor example. The date the UK came in to existence is very easy. 1 January 1801, the date the twin 1800 Acts of Union came in to force (and in 1922 in its current state).